Political Science

A comprehensive set of beliefs about the nature of people and the role of government is called
An Ideology

Contains the phrase “that to secure these rights, governments are instituted among men, deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed.
Declaration of Independence

Government can be defined as
An institution within which decisions are made that resolve conflicts

The Second continental congress
Established an army

The type of government The United States is
A representative Democracy

Many basic guarantees of liberty are found in
the bill of rights

Judicial review is
the power of the courts to declare federal or state laws and other acts of government unconstitutional.

In Thomas Paine’s Common Sense, he argued that
an independent colonial government of their own is a natural right.

A constitutional amendment can be ratified by
a positive vote in three-fourths of the legislatures of the various states.

Aristocracy means rule by
the “best.”

Article III, Section 1 of the Constitution gives Congress the power to
establish a system of courts below the Supreme Court.

Liberty can be defined as
the greatest freedom of the individual consistent with the freedom of other individuals

The concept of checks and balances allows
each branch of the government to be able to check the actions of the others.

Politics is
the struggle over power or influence within organizations or informal groups.

Capitalism is
an economic system marked by the private ownership of wealth-creating assets, free markets, and freedom of contract.

Which of the following is an argument against federalism?
That too much inequity exists between states in a federal system

Under what circumstances may states enter into agreements with one another?
The agreements may not increase the power of the contracting states relative to other states or to the federal government.

A model of federalism in which the states and the national government work together to solve problems is called
cooperative federalism.

The federal system in the United States occurred because of
a series of compromises.

Inherent powers derive from the fact that the United States is
a sovereign power among nations.

The controversy over slavery that led to the Civil War took the form of a dispute over
national government supremacy versus the rights of the separate states.

Which of the following is NOT a sound argument for a federalist system of government?
Federalism allows powerful state and local interests to block progress and impede national plans.

A special category of national powers that is not implied by the necessary and proper clause consists of what have been labelled _____ powers of the national government.
the inherent

The transfer of powers from a national or central government to a state or local government is called
devolution.

States may NOT
negotiate treaties with foreign nations.

Which clause of the Constitution allows Congress to carry out whatever law it needs to in order to carry out the Constitution’s provisions?
Necessary and proper clause

The doctrine of dual federalism receded into the background as the nation attempted to deal with
the Great Depression.

Constitutionally, which two sets of powers do state governments have?
Reserved and concurrent powers

Expanded authority of the national government has traditionally been preferred by
liberals.

According to the Constitution, if a state or local law conflicts with a national law,
the national law supercedes the state or local law.

What are the Miranda rights? What exceptions have been allowed to these rights?
Miranda rights inform an individual that they have a right to remain silent and a right to be represented by counsel. An exception to this right is a courts decision that a suspects conviction will not be automatically overturned if the suspect was coerced into making a confession. . If the confession was obtained illegally, a confession can be ignored.

Immigrants who are not yet citizens possess
fewer civil rights than any other identifiable group in the United States.

An individual’s trial rights include all of the following EXCEPT
the right not to be subject to lengthy questioning

The policy in admissions or hiring that gives special consideration to traditionally disadvantaged groups to overcome the present effects of past discrimination is known as
affirmative action.

The tests commonly administered as a precondition for voting were called
literacy tests.

Defamation of character is defined as
wrongfully hurting a person’s good reputation.

In Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka (1954), the U.S. Supreme Court
ruled that segregation of races in the public schools is unconstitutional.

A practice, policy, or procedure that denies equality of treatment to an individual or to a group because of gender
is gender discrimination.

Which of the following BEST defines civil liberties?
Civil liberties restrain the actions of government against individuals.

In Plessy v. Ferguson, the Court held that
social segregation did not violate the Constitution.

One major provision of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 was that it
outlawed discriminatory voter-registration tests

The phrase “don’t ask, don’t tell” refers to a policy toward gay men and lesbians
allowing them to serve in the military so long as they did not declare that they were gay or commit homosexual acts.

In 1903, the Supreme Court ruled that the government could not deport someone without
a hearing that meets constitutional due process standards.

A writ of habeas corpus is an order that requires
jailers to bring a prisoner before a court and explain why they are being held.

In his leadership of the civil rights movement, Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr., advocated
nonviolent civil disobedience.

The generational effect in politics refers to
the long-lasting effect of the events of a particular time on the political opinions of those who came of age at that time.

Today, ______ of Americans use television news as their primary source of information.
69 percent

A political advisor who tries to convince journalists of the truth of a particular interpretation of events is called a
spin doctor.

Determining which public policy questions will be debated or considered is a process known as ______.
agenda setting

The public tends to emphasize problems that are
immediate.

Which of the following best describes an opinion poll?
A method of systematically questioning a small, selected sample of respondents who are deemed representative of the total population

Transmitting political values
is more likely to happen from parents to children.

The public agenda is
issues that are perceived by the political community as meriting public attention and governmental action.

When people generally agree on an issue, the agreement itself is called
a consensus.

Which of the following best describes sampling error?
Any given poll will result in as certain percentage point variation from the true answer as pollsters could not really interview everyone.

By far, the greatest number of radio and television hours are dedicated to
entertaining the public.

Blogs and the Internet have
made it more difficult for candidates to manage the news coverage of their campaigns.

A brief, memorable comment that can easily be fit into news broadcasts is a
sound bite.

Many people contend that the media’s influence on public opinion
has grown to equal the influence of the family.

The media tends to depend on ______ for their income.
advertisers

The national convention of a national political party
officially nominates the presidential and vice-presidential candidates.

For a political party, the national committee
directs and coordinates party activities between national party conventions.

Title III of the Legislative Reorganization Act of 1946
was Congress’ first attempt to control lobbyists and lobbying activities.

The modern Republican Party was founded when the issue of ______ divided both existing political parties.
slavery

Many political scientists believe that third parties
have acted as safety valves for dissident groups, preventing major confrontations and political unrest

A political party is a group of political activists who
organize to win elections, operate the government, and determine public policy.

Which of the following best defines a social movement?
A movement that represents the demands of a large segment of the population for political, economic, or social change

One of the main ways third parties have influenced American politics is by
sometimes determining the outcome of an election by pulling votes from one of the major-party candidates.

Which of the following best describes patronage?
The practice of rewarding faithful party workers and followers with government employment and contracts

Lobbyists are best defined as
organizations or individuals that attempt to influence legislation and the government’s administrative decisions.

Umbrella groups” represent
collections of businesses or other entities.

The party organization is
the formal structure and leadership of a political party.

A group or bloc in a legislature or political party acting in pursuit of some special interest or position is called a(n)
faction.

A major development in the run-up to the 2010 elections was the growth of the ______ movement.
Tea Party

Most interest groups form to represent __________ interests.
economic

In 1954, fewer than 20 percent of adults identified themselves as ______, whereas today that share is about 40 percent
Independents

Independent expenditures by special interests are
unregulated political expenditures by PACs, organizations, and individuals that are not coordinated with candidate campaigns or political parties.

A meeting of party members designed to select candidates and propose policies is called
a caucus

Candidates in state and local elections are mostly chosen by
direct primaries.

The Hatch Act of 1939 is best known for
restricting the political activities of civil servants.

“Soft money” in political campaigns is best described as
campaign contributions to political parties that escaped limits of federal or state election law.

Some observers argue that an excessive concern with voting fraud makes it harder for
minorities and poor people to vote.

Which of the following best describes a focus group?
When professional consultants organize a discussion about candidates or certain political issues among small groups of ordinary citizens

Which of the following statements about the Buckley v. Valeo case is true?
The Supreme Court ruled that it was unconstitutional to restrict in any way the amount congressional candidates could spend on their own behalf

Under the 2010 Supreme Court ruling in Citizens United v. FEC,
corporations and unions are allowed to spend whatever they wish on issue ads.

A committee set up by and representing a corporation, labor union, or special interest group to raise campaign donations is a
political action committee.

Before the advent of ______, a strong party organization at the local, state, or national level could furnish most of the services candidates needed.
television campaigning

State and national candidates are typically nominated through a
primary election.

Superdelegates are
party leaders or elected officials who are given the right to vote at the party’s national convention.

Regarding voter requirements, each state
has different qualifications for voting and registration.

A majority of the bills that Congress acts on originate
in the executive branch.

One of the most powerful agencies in Washington, the _______ assembles the budget documents and monitors federal agencies throughout each year.
Office of Management and Budget

Independent executive agencies are
federal agencies that are not part of a cabinet department, but report directly to the president

The Budget and Impoundment Control Act of 1974 requires
the president to spend the funds that Congress has appropriated.

What percent of federal employees have been fired for incompetence in recent years?
Fewer than 0.1%

The job of a conference committee is to
write a compromise bill, if the House and Senate bills contain different provisions.

Redistricting is
the redrawing of district boundaries within each state.

In contrast to government bureaucracies, private corporations
have a single set of leaders.

Polls consistently report that the majority of Americans support
“less government.”

Which of the following statements best explain why the representation function is often a source of conflict for individual lawmakers?
The interests of constituents in a specific district may be at odds with the demands of national policy

One type of government corporation is the ______, a business created by the federal government itself, which then sells part or all of the corporation’s stock to private investors.
government-sponsored enterprise

A _______ is formed by the concurrent action of both chambers of Congress and consists of members from each chamber.
joint committee

Heads of regulatory agencies and members of agency boards or commissions are
appointed by the president.

Oversight is
the process by which Congress follows up on the laws it has enacted

A filibuster is
the use of unlimited debate as a delaying tactic to block a bill.

Today, the members of the cabinet
include fourteen department secretaries and the attorney general, plus other top officials chosen by the president.

According to the Twenty-fifth Amendment, if a president’s ability to discharge his normal functions is in question and he is unable to communicate,
a majority of the cabinet, including the vice president, can declare the president incapable.

Which of the following best describes the War Powers Resolution?
The requirement that the President report to Congress within forty-eight hours of sending troops into action, and then obtain the approval of Congress within sixty days

Which of the following happens when the president signs a bill?
It becomes law.

Which of the following best defines statutory power?
Power created for the president through laws enacted by Congress

As commander in chief, the president is
the ultimate decision maker in military matters

The granting of release from the punishment for a crime is called
a pardon.

A veto is
a clear-cut indication of the president’s dissatisfaction with legislation.

Which of the following is true about Presidential emergency powers?
They were first enunciated in the Supreme Court’s decision in United States v. Curtiss-Wright Export Corp.

If the president refuses to sign a bill and Congress adjourns within ten working days after the bill has been submitted to the president, it is called a
pocket veto.

Which of the following statements best defines executive privilege?
The President can withhold some information from Congress or the courts.

In order for a treaty to go into effect, it must be
approved by a two-thirds vote in the Senate.

The organization established by President Franklin D. Roosevelt to assist the president in carrying out major duties is called
the Executive Office of the President

Which of the following best describes the President’s appointment power?
The President appoints cabinet and subcabinet jobs, federal judgeships, agency heads, and several thousand lesser jobs.

As chief executive, the president is constitutionally bound to
enforce the acts of Congress, treaties signed by the United States, and judgments of federal courts.

Which of the following statements best describes the George W. Bush Administration’s stand on enemy combatants?
Enemy combatants could be held indefinitely.

A procedure used by the Supreme Court in determining which cases it will hear is called ______, after the number of justices who must vote to grant a petition for review.
the rule of four

The Supreme Court’s rulings can
be overturned by constitutional amendments at both the federal and state levels.

Supreme Court justices are
appointed by the president.

Which of the following statements best describes the role of the United States Constitution?
The United States Constitution is the supreme law of the land.

A lawsuit seeking damages for “all persons similarly situated” is called
a class-action suit.

Which of the following best describes the doctrine of stare decisis?
Judges must follow the precedents established by past decisions.

A dissenting opinion can be important because
it often forms the basis of the arguments used later if the Court reverses the previous decision and establishes a new precedent.

Case law includes all of the following EXCEPT
constitutional amendments.

A court rule bearing on subsequent legal decisions in similar cases is called a
precedent.

A Supreme Court justice who disagrees with the majority opinion may
write a dissenting opinion.

The federal appeals court process involves
a panel of judges that reviews the case record and determines whether the trial court committed an error.

A writ of certiorari by the Supreme Court orders
a lower court to send up the record of a case for review

Jurisdiction refers to
the authority of a court to hear and decide certain cases.

If a case is remanded, it
is sent back to the court that originally heard the case.

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