A. The radiation therapy causes the inability to have an erection.
B. Radiation therapy with chemotherapy causes temporary infertility.
C. Permanent sterility occurs in male clients who receive radiation.
D. The client should restrict sexual activity during radiotherapy.
A. Stressed induced tremor and trembling.
B. Cardiac damage.
C. Seizure activity.
D. Skeletal muscle degeneration.
B. Bladder infection
D. Irritable bladder
A. Autosomal Dominance occurs with this disorder.
B. Sons of female carriers have a 50% chance of inheriting hemophilia.
C. Men with hemophilia have sons who also manifest the disease.
D. The disease occurs in daughters of men with hemophilia.
E. Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder.
A. Ptosis on the left eyelid.
B. A nystagmus on the left.
C. Astigmatism on the right.
D. Exophthalmos on the right.
A. Acute compartment syndrome.
B. Fat embolism syndrome.
C. Venous thromboembolism.
D. Aseptic ischemic necrosis.
A. Provide a more rapid induction of anesthesia.
B. Decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
C. Induce relaxation before the induction of anesthesia.
D. Minimize the amount of analgesia needed postoperatively.
A. Pallor, intermittent claudication.
B. Pedal edema, brown pigmentation.
C. Blanched skin, lower extremity ulcers.
D. Peripheral neuropathy, cold extremities.
A. Obstruction at the urinary bladder neck.
B. Ureteral calculi obstruction.
C. Uteropelvic junction stricture.
D. Partial post-renal obstruction due to ureteral stricture.
B. Diabetes mellitus.
C. Diabetes insipidus.
D. Alzheimer’s disease.
A. An absence of lung sounds on the affected side.
B. An inability to auscultate tracheal breath sounds.
C. A deviation of the trachea toward the side opposite the pneumothorax.
D. A shift of the point of maximal impulse to the left, with bounding pulses.
A. Increase in size.
B. Decrease in length.
C. Increase in number.
D. Decrease in excitability.
A. Higher on the left side.
B. Higher on the right side.
C. Lower in the arms than in the legs.
D. Lower in the legs than in the arms.
C. Pernicious anemia.
D. Oxalic acid toxicity.
A. Inadequate mitochondrial ATP.
B. Enzyme release from lysosomes.
C. Defective chromosomes for protein.
Defective integral membrane proteins.
A. Wear layers of clothes if experiencing hot flashes.
B. Use a water-soluble lubricant for vaginal dryness.
C. Consume adequate foods rich in calcium.
D. Participate in stimulating mental exercises.
A. Blood urea nitrogen 40 and creatinine 1.0.
B. Cloudy, amber urine with sediment, specific gravity of 1.040.
C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq and total calcium of 6 mg/dl.
D. Hemoglobin of 10 g and hypophosphatemia.
A. Pindolol (visken).
B. Carteolol (ocupress).
C. Meoprolol tartate (Lopressor).
D. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal).
A. Impaired gas exchange.
B. Risk for infection.
C. Risk for injury.
D. Risk for activity intolerance.
A. Mild allergic reaction.
B. Febrile transfusion reaction.
C. Anaphylactic transfusion reaction.
D. Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction.
A. Impaired physical mobility related to right-sided hemiplegia.
B. Risk for injury related to denial of deficits and impulsiveness.
C. Impaired verbal communication related to speech-language deficits.
D. Ineffective coping related to depression and distress about disability.
A. Lay the child down and as the mother to stay near the child in the crib.
B. Encourage the mother to take and break and leave the room to stop crying.
C. Keep all light sources off and close the window blinds to the room.
D. Use calm, reassurance and understanding to comfort the mother.
A. 6 to 18 months.
B. 1 to 12 months.
C. 1 to 18 weeks.
D. 6 to 12 weeks.
A. Predominance of neutrophils.
B. Absence of fibroblasts and proteases.
C. Decrease in degradation products.
D. Increase in monocytes and macrophages.
A. Small cell lung cancer.
B. Active tuberculosis infection.
C. Hodkinae Lymphoma.
D. Tricyclic antidepressant therapy.
A. Midway between menstrual cycles.
B. One week before your period.
C. The first day of your period.
D. Five to seven days after menses cease.
C. Peripheral edema.
D. Left upper quadrant pain.
A. A cerebral infectious process is causing the posturing.
B. Severe dysfunction of the cerebral cortex has occurred.
C. There is a probable dysfunction of the midbrain.
D. The client is exhibiting signs of a brain tumor.
A. A uniformly enlarged prostate is benign prostatic hypertrophy that occurs with aging.
B. The spongy or elastic texture of the prostate is normal and requires no further testing.
C. An infection is usually present when the prostate indents when a finger is pressed on it.
D. Stony, irregular nodules palpated on the prostate should be further evaluated.
A. As the prostate gland enlarges, its cells contribute more PSA in the circulating blood.
B. The PSA levels normally rise and fall, so multiple testing’s over time are necessary.
C. Low PSA levels indicate the prostate gland is not functioning properly.
D. The PSA blood test is used to determine dosage for Viagra prescriptions.
A. Posterior pituitary and testes.
B. Adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex.
C. Hypothalamus and anterior pituitary.
D. Parathyroid and islets of Langerhans.
B. Oat-cell carcinoma.
C. Malignant melanoma.
D. Squamous-cell carcinoma.
A. T wave of 0.16 second.
B. PR interval of 0.18 second.
C. QT interval of 0.34 second.
D. QRS Interval of 0.14 second.
A. Hypernatremia and periorbital edema.
B. Muscle spasticity and hypertension.
C. Weight gain and low serum sodium.
D. Increased urinary output and thirst.
A. This recessive disorder is carried only on the X chromosome.
B. Occurrences mainly effect males and heterozygous females.
C. Both genes of a pair must be abnormal for the disorder to occur
D. One copy of the abnormal gene is required for this disorder.
A. Pupil constriction.
B. Increased heart rate.
C. Bronchial constriction.
D. Decreased blood pressure.
A. Review the electrocardiogram tracing.
B. Obtain blood for coagulation studies.
C. Apply a warming blanket.
D. Provide heated PO fluids.
A. Poor blood glucose control.
B. Neurological effects of diabetes.
C. Susceptibility to infection.
D. Uncontrolled hypertension
A. Inspiratory wheezes in both lungs.
B. Crackles in the right and left lower lobes.
C. Abnormal lung sounds in the bases of both lungs.
D. Pleural friction rubs in the right and left lower lobes.
A. A central monitoring system reduces the risk of complications undetected by observation.
B. A pulmonary artery catheter measures central pressures for monitoring fluid replacement.
C. Pulmonary artery catheters allow for early detection of lung problems.
D. The healthcare provider should explain the many reasons for its use.
A. Bilateral crackles.
C. Mucus production.
D. Weak peripheral pulses.
A. Use of a douche preparation no more than once a month.
B. Increase daily intake of fiber and leafy green vegetables.
C. Select nylon underwear that is loose-fitting, white, and comfortable.
D. Avoid tight-fitting clothing and do not use bubble-bath or bath salts.
C. Intestinal ischemia.
D. Renal artery embolization.
A. Loss of thirst, weight gain.
B. Dependent edema, fever.
C. Polydipsia, polyuria.
D. Hypernatremia, tachypnea.
B. Oophorectomy and hysterectomy.
C. Early menarche.
D. Cardiac disease.
E. Genetic influence.
F. Chemotherapy exposure.
A. Type 1 DM and a serum hemoglobin-A1c of 3.5%.
B. Type 1 DM and retinopathy and mild vision loss.
C. Type 2 DM and hypertension controlled by metoprolol.
D. Type 2 DM and a history of morbid obesity for 5 years.
A. Distention of the lower abdomen.
B. Nausea and profuse vomiting.
C. Upper abdominal discomfort.
D. Fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
A. An older client usually lives alone and cannot summon help when symptoms appear.
B. An older client is more likely to eat high-fat diets which predisposes to heart disease.
C. Cardiac symptoms, such as confusion, are more difficult to recognize in an older client.
D. An older client is intolerant of decreased cardiac output which may cause dizziness and falls.
A. Sensory input of noxious stimuli relayed to the cognitive centers is associated with disgust and illicit vomiting.
B. Response of stimulation of the posterior oropharynx results in reverse peristalsis of the gastrointestinal tract.
C. Spasmodic reflex of respiratory and gastric movements results from stimulation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone.
D. Increased gastric and colonic pressures move gastrointestinal contents to the orifice of least resistance.
A. Autosomal dominant disorders, such as Huntington’s, cannot be inherited.
B. Testing is needed because there is a 50 percent risk of passing the gene to each offspring.
C. Genetic counselling should be provided to ensure an informed decision by the family.
D. Positive genetic testing may contribute to insurance discrimination that denies coverage.