HPR: 1-6

Which of the following statements best fits the team physician?
Is the final authority in determining when an injured athlete can return to practice and competition

Prevention of injury is a minor goal of athletic training. T or F
False

Which of the following individuals is NOT considered a fitness professional?
Athletic Trainer

Which would not be considered an appropriate injury prevention strategy of the sports medicine team?
Prescribing daily vitamin supplementation for all athletes

In the absence of a certified athletic trainer a coach must be able to do all of the following except:
Diagnose injuries

Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the coach as part of the Sports Medicine Team?
Make decisions on returning athletes to practice and competition following an injury

Which of the following members of the sports medicine team should be consulted for problems and lesions on the skin?
Dermatologist

Which of the following members of the sports medicine team should be consulted for treating injuries and disorders of the musculoskeletal system?
Orthopedist

Once an athlete returns to the weight room with the strength and conditioning coach following an injury, the athletic trainer does not have any responsibilities for this athlete’s training regimen.
False

Which of the following definitions best describes the field of “sports medicine”?
Different specialized areas related to performance and injury

Athletic training is:
All of the Above

(A specialization in sports medicine, A major link between sports programs and the medical community,
Concerned with prevention and treatment of athletic injuries)

All certified Athletic Trainers are required to be CPR certified?
T or F
True

__________ is a physician specializing in foot care.
Podiatrist

Which of the following organizations does NOT offer certifications for personal fitness trainers?
BOC

In order to maintain certification, athletic trainers must accumulate continuing education units, how many are necessary over what period of time?
50 over 2 years

The components of a pre-participation exam include a physical exam, a maturity assessment, and an orthopedic exam. The components of a pre-participation exam include a physical exam, a maturity assessment, and an orthopedic exam.

T or F

True

An athlete’s medical information may be released to the athletic director, the team physician, and the player’s teammates.

T or F

False

Which of the following is considered the minimum square footage for an Athletic Healthcare Facility?
1,000 square feet

A medical history form should be completed before the physical exam and orthopedic screening.
True

Which of the following items are expendable supplies?
Tape, massage lotion & bandages

OSHA stands for:
Occupational Safety and Health Administration

Which of the following protects the privacy of a student athletes medical record?
HIPAA

Which of the following protects the privacy of a student’s educational record?
FERPA

Which of the following conditions does NOT indicate a possible medical disqualification from collision/contact sports?
Diabetes

Which of the following regulates how an athlete’s health information can be shared?
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

The purpose of obtaining a personal information card on each athlete is to record:
Family and insurance information

The primary purpose of a preseason health exam is to:
Identify whether an athlete is at risk before he/she participates

Which of the following types of documentation should be used as a sign-in record for patients?
Treatment Log

What area(s) need to be included in the design of an Athletic Training Facility?
All of the Above
(private exam room, wet area, treatment area)

If a patient touches his/her toes with straight knees, you would be testing for all of the following except:
Muscle Strength

Athletic trainers who act in an unethical manner can ultimately lose their certification.

T or F

True

Manufacturers of products do not have a duty to design and produce equipment that will not cause injury; it is the responsibility of the user to use it safely.

T or F

False

When an individual fails to perform a legal duty it is known as.
Act of Omission (nonfeasance)

A legal wrong that is committed against a person or property is known as:
Tort

An athlete sprains his or her ankle during a soccer practice. If a trained individual fails to provide care for this athlete he or she can be held liable for such negligence.

T or F

True

If an individual modifies a piece of protective equipment and an athlete sustains an injury, that individual can be held liable.

T or F

True

When an individual improperly does something they have a legal right to do, this is known as what?
misfeasance

The state of being legally responsible for the harm one causes another person is:
Liability

Which of the following best describes malfeasance (act of commission)?
A legal wrong that is committed when an individual performs an act that is not his/her legal duty

The court acknowledges that hazards are present in sports. This concept is called:
Assumption of Risk

In an attempt to control the cost of medical care a concept called _________ was developed, often requiring pre-approval for care.
Managed care

Which of the following organizations is responsible for creating minimum safety standards for equipment?
National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment

Which of the following organizations allows the individual discounted health care, but only if they see a physician on the approved list?
Preferred Provider Organization

Because of the amount of litigation for alleged negligence, all professionals involved in sports programs should carry liability insurance.

T or F

True

Failure to use ordinary or reasonable care is known as:
Negligence

The ability of a muscle group to exert force rapidly is called:
Muscular power

How often must the average person engage in activity/exercise to see improvements in cardiorespiratory endurance?
At least 3 days per week

What is a primary reason for the strength difference in males vs. females?
Women have a higher percentage of body fat which decreases the strength to body-weight ratio

If the intensity of an activity is such that sufficient oxygen can be supplied to meet the demands of working tissues, the activity is:
Aerobic

A soccer player running ten 120 yd sprints in under 20 seconds each with a 1 minute walking recovery period between each sprint is an example of:
Interval training

The warm-up prior to the start of practice or competition should last how long?
10 to 15 minutes

Isometric contractions increase the strength throughout the full range of motion of any given joint.

T or F

False

Open kinetic chain exercises consist of those exercises in which the foot or hand is in contact with the ground or some other object.

T or F

False

All the following are examples of closed kinetic chain exercises except:
Seated knee extensions

Hopping, bounding and depth jumps are forms of:
Plyometric exercises

Which of the following training techniques involves alternating periods of relatively intense work and active recovery?
Interval training

The relaxation of which type of muscle occurs as a response to a contraction of the opposing muscle?
Antagonist

The stretching method that uses an extreme stretch that is held for an extended period of time is which of the following?
Static stretch

Which of the following describes the time when conditioning is dedicated to unstructured recreational activities and physical restoration?
Off-season

An approach to conditioning that attempts to bring about peak performance while reducing injuries and overtraining is defined as:
Periodization

Lack of what vitamin in ones diet can lead to scurvy?
Vitamin C

Vegetables, breads, cereals and pasta are all examples of what food group?
Complex Carbohydrates

Which vitamin is essential for the building of cells and preventing night blindness?
Vitamin A

Which of the following nutrients may prevent pre-mature aging, certain cancers, and heart disease?
Antioxidants

Glycogen loading is used for events of long duration such as a marathon or triathlon.

T or F

True

Individuals taking blood thinning medications should closely monitor their intake of foods containing which vitamin?
Vitamin K

Which of the following are fat-soluble vitamins?
A, D, E, K

Which of the following is NOT part of the MyPyramid symbol?
Weight loss

What is portion of a persons’ total body weight called that is composed of muscles, tendons, bones, and connective tissue?
Lean body weight

Nutrients eaten several days before competition are much more important than what is eaten three hours prior to competition at the pre-game meal.

T or F

True

What mineral is most abundant in the body and is necessary for bone formation?
Calcium

Which of the following minerals is extremely important for bones and teeth, for the body to be able to create a muscle contraction, and for proper nerve function?
Calcium

Creatine is a banned substance and cannot be given to athletes.
False

What stimulant used in diet pills that can cause heart related issues?
Ephedrine

Fats are an essential component of the daily diet.

T or F

True

It is desirable to fit the athlete’s shoe at the end of the day to accommodate the gradual increases in foot size that occurs.

T or F

True

Which of the following organizations is responsible for helmet certification standards?
National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment

Neoprene sleeves, shoe inserts, ankle braces, and helmets are all considered which of the following?
Off-the-shelf equipment

If an individual modifies a piece of protective equipment and an athlete sustains a severe injury the person that modified the equipment can be held liable.

T or F

True

An effective sports bra holds the breasts to the chest to prevent which of the following?
Vertical and horizontal movement

All of the following are the disadvantages of glasses except for which statement?
They cannot withstand the rigors of sport

The proper selection and fit of sports equipment has little to do with preventing sports injuries.

T or F

False

In football, a face protector should have a minimum of how many bars?
Two bars

Which type of bra is most effective for larger breasted women?
Supportive

Which of the following is NOT a component of an athletic shoe?
Arch Plate

An intraoral mouth guard performs all of the following functions except which of the following?
Minimizing fractures to the upper jaw

Which of the following is the best material to use to prevent friction and allow for faster drying in socks?
Cotton and polyester blend

If you are an athlete, which of the following is a disadvantage of wearing contact lenses?
Eye irritation caused by dust getting under the lens

Which of the following is NOT a concern when setting the standards for protective equipment?
The color, look, and style

Which of the following braces can be utilized on an athlete who is suffering from a patellofemoral condition?
Neoprene

Which of the following is the most effective means for the body to dissipate heat when the temperature and radiant heat of the environment are higher than the body temperature?
Evaporation

When replenishing fluids with a glucose solution, what percentage of glucose and electrolytes is most useful?
6%

Which of the following is an incorrect type of heat loss by the body?
Conversion

If you are out on the soccer practice field and you see lightning, what should you do?
Stop the activity and seek shelter

How many minutes prior to exposure of the sun should sunscreen be applied?
15-30

Death is imminent if the core body temperature rises above 107° F, or drops between 77° F and 85° F.

T or F

True

During warm weather, what percentage of body water loss is seldom replaced even though an athlete drinks fluids?
50%

Overweight individuals with a large muscle mass experience greater heat production than underweight individuals and are therefore more susceptible to heat illness.

T or F

True

What condition is indicative of an absence of sweating with hot, flushed, dry skin?
Heat Stroke

The body would have to drop to what temperature for shivering to cease?
85-90 degrees F

Heat exhaustion is caused by the sudden onset of thermoregulatory failure which can lead to death if untreated.

T or F

False

If the flash to bang is 15 seconds, lightning is occurring how far away?
3 miles awy

If an individual presented with an increasing headache, nausea, vomiting, and swelling in the hands and feet, what is the individual’s condition?
Hyponatremia

In giving emergency treatment for a heat stroke victim, what is the most important directive?
Lowering the body temperature with ice tub immersion and transporting the victim to the hospital via ambulance

What is the heat disorder that is caused by prolonged sweating, diarrhea, and inadequate replacement of body fluid losses?
Heat Exhaustion

When one is controlling external bleeding, what is the sequence of events?
Apply direct pressure over the wound and elevate the body part

What is the first step to establish unresponsiveness of an athlete?
Gently tap his/her shoulder and ask, “Are you OK?”

What is the normal pulse and respiratory rate for an adult at rest?
60-80 beats/min, 12 breaths/min

If a light-colored athlete presented with red skin color, what is the likeable condition?
Heatstroke, high blood pressure, or elevated temperature

When carrying out cardiopulmonary resuscitation, what is the first step to ensure the athlete’s airway is open?
Properly position the athlete’s chin

Which of the following would be the most likely cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious athlete?
Tongue

When performing chest compressions on an adult, where does the rescuer place the heel of the hand?
Lower half of sternum

When assessing a potentially unconscious athlete, what is the first action that must be taken?
Determine the level of consciousness and unresponsiveness

Which of these is NOT a symptom of shock?
Athletes pulse rate is very slow

After a quick on-site injury inspection and evaluation, which of the following decisions would be unnecessary to consider?
Level of consciousness

Which of the following ice treatments should have a protective barrier on the skin?
Frozen gel packs

After an injury, acute management should be done for how many hours?
72

The proper ratio of compression’s to breaths for a single rescuer in Adult CPR is 30 compression’s to 2 ventilation’s.

T or F

True

If an unconscious athlete had a feeble and irregular pulse, had breathing that was shallow and irregular, and was pale and cold with equal pupils, what would the athlete be experiencing?
Shock

To open the victim’s airway, lift up the chin or the neck, then force the chin down.

T or F

False

Hypovolemic Shock occurs when there is a diminished amount of blood available to the circulatory system.

T or F

True

When transporting an athlete with a suspected spinal or pelvic injury, what techniques should be used?
Use a spine board and move under medical direction

Which of the following is the most important in controlling swelling?
Compression

Tetanus is caused by a ____________?
Bacterium

What is the first step you should take when caring for all minor skin wounds?
Apply gloves prior to touching the wound

What is the series in which the HBV vaccine is given?
3 doses over a 6-month period

If a uniform becomes saturated with blood, what is the proper action that should be taken for the athlete to continue participation?
The uniform should be changed immediately

If you wear gloves while treating an athlete, it is not necessary to wash your hands when finished.

T or F

False

In order to reduce the risk of HIV infection, what is an important measure to practice?
Avoid drugs that impair judgment

How often must a person get an updated Tetanus vaccine?
every 10 years

Which of the following is the least likely to cause HIV transmission?
Basketball

Which of the following solution mixes would be the best to clean treatment tables in the athletic training room?
A 1:10 solution of bleach and water

Which of the following bodily fluids does not transmit HIV?
Saliva

What is a bloodborne pathogen?
A microorganism that can cause disease

Which of the following wounds results from the skin being torn from the body?
Avulsion

Which type of wound is tetanus associated with?
Puncture

What is the most prevalent Bloodbourne pathogen?
Hepatitis B

HBV is more likely to be spread than HIV because it is a heartier virus and can survive outside the body for longer periods of time.

T or F

True

A long-term goal of any rehabilitation program is to return the athlete to participation as quickly and as safely as possible.

T or F

True

Which kind of strengthening exercises are used commonly in the early phase of rehabilitation?
Isometric exercises

Which of the following modalities is a Non Health Care Provider unable to use?
Electrical Stimulation

What is the long term goal of any rehabilitation program?
Return to play

Which of the following is used to determine an athlete’s ability to perform a specific activity?
Functional tests

The single most neglected part of every rehabilitation program is balance training.

T or F

False
Cardiorespiratory fitness

During progressive resistive exercise, both eccentric and concentric isotonic contractions are incorporated.

T or F

True

Which of the following components of a rehabilitation program is most commonly neglected?
Cardiorespiratory fitness

All of the following are considered short term goals EXCEPT:
Increase muscular strength

Which of the following types of exercise is used to facilitate a muscle contraction through a quick stretch?
Plyometric exercise

An athlete’s coach makes the final decision as to whether he/she can return to full competition and practice.

T or F

False

Which of the following modalities can be used to modulate pain acutely?
Ice

Exercises that utilize both concentric and eccentric contractions in which force is generated against resistance while the muscle is changing in length are called:
Progressive resistive exercises

What is the component of the rehabilitation program that involves a series of progressive activities designed to prepare an individual for return to a specific sport?
Functional progression

Which of the following wounds results from the top layer of skin being scraped away, bleeds very little but extremely painful?
Abrasion

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of HBV?
weight loss

During progressive resistive exercise, both eccentric and concentric isotonic contractions are incorporated.

T or F

True

Full range of motion of an affected body part is a major criterion before the athlete returns to participation.

T or F

True

An athlete’s coping skills, past history of injury, social support, and personality traits can influence their reaction to injury.

T or F

True

The athlete who enters a contest while angry, frustrated, or discouraged is less prone to injury than the individual who is going all out in the competition.

T or F

False

What will a coach base the decision to return an athlete to participation?
The status of the athlete and game situation

Which of the following is a reaction to a chronic injury?
Frustration

Which of the following is NOT a factor when setting goals for rehabilitation?
Give the athlete a specific date to return to activity

Which of the following is a reaction to a career ending injury?
Loss of identity

An injury prone athlete may have which of the following personality traits?
All of the above

(Tender minded, over-protective, risk taker)

Which of the following occurs when an athlete feels an overwhelming feeling of hopelessness or loneliness?
Depression

The coach should take all of the following steps if he/she recognizes overtraining in an athlete except:
Increase the intensity of activities and lower the amount of work

An athlete demonstrating a vague fear, a sense of apprehension and restlessness is exhibiting symptoms of which of the following?
Anxiety

Stress may be either positive or negative?

T or F

True

The body language of the coach or support staff is important when an athlete is trying to express their apprehension about an injury.

T or F

True

Which of the following is a result of a negative stressor which can result in injury?
Loss of attentional focus

Which of the following is not a reactive phase?
Reaction to stress

It is not necessary for the athlete to be included in the decision-making process.

T or F

False

Which of the following is the key to treating tendonitis?
Resting the injured area by eliminating the irritating activity

Which of the following fractures is characterized by a bone fragment that has been pulled away from the bone?
Avulsion fracture

Which of the following would be considered an acute injury?
Shoulder subluxation

What type of fracture is characterized by an incomplete break in a bone that has not completely ossified?
Greenstick fracture

Which of the phases involves scar formation and repair?
Fibroblastic

Which of the following mechanisms causes a transverse fracture?
Bending

What type of injury occurs when a bone comes partially out of its normal articulation then goes right back into place?
Subluxation

Which cells lay down new bone tissue?
Osteoblasts

During which phase of the healing process do phagocytic cells clean up the area?
Inflammatory

What is the main shaft of the bone known as?
Diaphysis

A first time dislocation should be considered and treated as a fracture.

T or F

True

A stress fracture resulting from repeated microtrauma commonly occurs in weight bearing bones.

T or F

True

Which of the following complications is a result of repeated blows to the same area?
Myositis ossificans

Which of the following fractures is caused by axial compression, bending, and torsion?
Oblique fracture

What degree classification of a ligament sprain involves total tearing of tissue?
third degree

All of the following are joints that commonly dislocate EXCEPT:
HIP

A strain involves damage to a ligament, and a sprain involves damage to a muscle.

T or F

False

A critical consideration in avoiding heat stress is to: Acclimatize A heat disorder characterized by profuse sweating, diarrhea, persistent muscle cramps and dizziness with loss of coordination is: Exertional heat exhaustion WE WILL WRITE A CUSTOM ESSAY SAMPLE ON ANY …

The small blood vessels that distribute blood throughout the entire body are… capillaries A typical resting heart rate for a normal individual is around… 50-90 beats per minute. WE WILL WRITE A CUSTOM ESSAY SAMPLE ON ANY TOPIC SPECIFICALLY FOR …

Athletic training was founded in the early 1950’s. At first there were only a few members centered mostly in colleges and universities. Today, athletic training has grown to 22,700 certified and student members’ worldwide. For a student to become certified …

An approach to conditioning that attempts to bring about peak performance while reducing injuries and overtraining is defined as: Periodization Which of the following describes the time when conditioning is dedicated to unstructured recreational activities and physical restoration? Off-season WE …

For athletes, functional exercises for lower-extremity resistance lay the foundation for sport-specific training that enhances agility and performance. Resistance training for rehabilitation and performance improvement is primarily helpful for sports enthusiasts and athletes. Resistance training is done through constant progression, …

We warm up so we are less likely to cause injury to ourselves and so that our muscles are well stretched, we cool down to make sure that are muscles don’t cease up, and we are not aching the next …

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