The term disease refers to
a deviation from the normal state of health and function

All of the following are part of the Seven Steps to Health EXCEPT
participate in strenuous exercise on a regular daily basis

A short-term illness that develops very quickly with perhaps a high fever or severe pain is called

The term cancer refers to
malignant neoplasm

When prolonged ischemia occurs to an area of the heart, the resulting damage is referred to as

A type of cellular adaptation in which there is a decrease in cell size is referred to as

The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the
signs and symptoms of a disease

Caseation necrosis refers to an area where
dead cells form a thick cheesy substance

The best definition of the term prognosis is the
predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease

A deficit of oxygen in the cells usually due to respiratory or circulatory problems is called

At which site are most drugs metabolized and prepared for excretion

Contraindications printed on the label of a drug identify
those circumstances under which the drug should probably not be used

Which of the following are considered to be the toxic effects of a drug
Serious, possibly life-threatening effects

A placebo may be described as a tablet or capsule
that does not contain an active drug

Ingesting a drug with a large meal may be likely to
prevent gastric irritation

Antagonistic drugs may be used to
act as an antidote when necessary

The form of therapy that involves assessment of physical function and works to restore any problems and prevent any further dysfunction using methods such as appropriate exercises and ultrasound is referred to as

What is the reaction called when two drugs interact to produce a result much greater than the sum of individual effects

A medical history should include all:
1. legally prescribed drugs.
2. vitamin or mineral supplements.
3. any medication not requiring a prescription (over-the-counter items).
4. herbal treatments.
1, 2, 3, 4

A drug that binds with selected specific cell receptors may
1, 2

In the initial stage, vomiting results in
metabolic alkalosis

What are the three mechanisms that control or compensate for serum pH
Buffer pairs in blood, change in kidney excretion rate, change in respiration rate

Which of the following would likely be related to an elevated hematocrit reading
Fluid deficit

Choose the correct proportion of water to body weight to be expected in a healthy male adult’s body

A prolonged state of metabolic acidosis often leads to

The direct effects of acidosis are manifested primarily in the functioning of the
Nervous system

Which of the following causes tetany
Increased permeability of nerve membranes due to low serum calcium

Which of the following is a manifestation of respiratory alkalosis
Increased nervous system irritability

What is the effect on blood serum when excessive lactic acid accumulates in the body
Bicarbonate ion levels decrease

When the osmotic pressure of the blood is elevated above normal, water would shift from the
interstitial compartment into the blood

Ibuprofen is classified as an NSAID and is particularly useful in treating
pain caused by inflammation.

According to the gate-control theory, passage of pain impulses may be naturally blocked
at the synapse by entry of other sensory impulses

Intractable pain is best defined as:
severe pain that cannot be controlled by medication

Pain resulting from a profound, sudden loss of blood flow to an organ or tissues in a specific area of the body is referred to as
ischemic pain

Which of the following statements is TRUE
Young infants typically respond to pain with tachycardia and increased blood pressure

Pain that is caused by trauma or disease involving the peripheral nerves is referred to as
neuropathic pain

The impulses related to acute pain are usually transmitted by
myelinated A delta fibers

Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic pain
It is more difficult to diagnose and treat than is acute pain

Cancer-related pain has been broken down into three basic categories: pain caused by the advance of the disease and resultant damage to the body, pain that is the result of a coexisting disease unrelated to the cancer, and
pain associated with the treatment of the disease

What is the term used to describe the degree of pain that is endured before an individual takes action
Pain tolerance

Which of the following statements regarding inflammation is incorrect
Disorders are named using the ending -sarcoma to indicate inflammation

During an inflammatory response, hyperemia is caused by
increased blood flow in the area

All of the following are correct statements regarding wound healing EXCEPT
Granulation tissue forms a permanent replacement for damaged tissue

Purulent exudates usually contain
numerous leukocytes, bacteria, and cell debris

Patients taking glucocorticoids for long periods of time are likely to develop all of the following EXCEPT
increased leukocyte production

Isoenzymes in the circulating blood
often indicate the precise location of an inflammatory response

Some local effects of a general inflammatory response would include
redness, warmth, and swelling

Which of the following drugs relieves fever and some types of pain but is NOT an anti-inflammatory agent

Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted by which of the following
Cysts in feces

Which of the following cellular elements found in the inflammatory response are responsible for phagocytosis?

Granulation tissue is best described as:
highly vascular, very fragile, and very susceptible to infection

Hypermetabolism is common with major burns because of:
All of the above

Which of the following are characteristics of influenza virus?
1. It is an obligate intracellular parasite.
2. It contains RNA.
3. It usually causes nausea and vomiting.
4. There are three subtypes: A, B, C.
1, 2, 4

How does penicillin act as a bactericidal agent
It interferes with cell-wall synthesis.

Which of the following is normally considered sterile?

The presence of the bacterial capsule:
protects the microbe from phagocytosis.

A broad-spectrum bactericidal agent would be expected to:
destroy many gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria

Bacteria that form an irregular cluster of spheres are called

A retrovirus such as HIV contains:
RNA and enzymes for its conversion

The structure of a virus includes:
a protein coat and either DNA or RNA

In cases of polycythemia vera, blood pressure is elevated as a result of:
increased blood volume

Leukemia is sometimes linked to chromosome abnormalities, as evidenced by:
the presence of Philadelphia chromosome translocation in cases of acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)

Why do vascular occlusions and infarcts occur frequently with sickle cell anemia?
Erythrocytes change to sickle shape when hypoxia occurs.

What are the two circulations that comprise the overall circulatory system?
Pulmonary and systemic circulations

In individuals with acute leukemia, the increased number of malignant leukocytes leads to:
1. decreased hemoglobin.
2. thrombocytopenia.
3. bone pain with increased activity.
4. splenomegaly.
1, 2, 4

Individuals with type O blood are considered to be universal donors because their blood:
lacks A and B antigens.

Which of the following applies to the leukemias?
Chronic leukemias are more common in older people.

Petechiae and purpura are common signs of:
increased bleeding.

Which of the following is present with pernicious anemia?

What term is used to describe a deficit of all types of blood cells?

Elephantiasis, caused by the obstruction of lymphatic vessels by parasitic worms, is an example of the condition known as:

Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic disease of unknown etiology occurring in older adults and involving:
plasma cells

The staging system typically used in determining the stage of the Hodgkin’s lymphoma is the:
Ann Arbor system

A rare illness that involves the overgrowth of lymphoid tissue, although not itself considered a cancer is:
Castleman disease

The atypical cell that serves as a marker for diagnosing Hodgkin’s lymphoma is the
Reed-Sternberg cell

Non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas are increasing in incidence, partly due to the numbers associated with:
an increase in HIV infections.

The spleen has a number of important functions, which include:
hematopoiesis, destruction of old erythrocytes, blood reservoir.

One of the reasons non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas are harder to treat than Hodgkin’s lymphomas is that they:
involve multiple nodes and widespread metastases.

Malignant neoplasms involving lymphocyte proliferation in the lymph nodes are called:

The function of the hormones secreted by the thymus gland is to
enable lymphocytes to develop into mature T cells.

In cases of HIV infection, the “window period” refers to the time between:
entry of the virus into the body and the appearance of antibodies in the blood.

An autoimmune disease is:
failure of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a patient who is HIV positive?
Antibodies in the blood indicate presence of virus and possible transmission to others.

A diagnosis of HIV positive means that:
the virus and its antibodies are present in the blood.

Incompatible blood transfusions result in:
hemolysis of erythrocytes

Tissue transferred between two genetically identical twins is referred to as a/an:

Which cells are required to process and present antigens from foreign material as the initial step in the immune response?

HIV infection impairs:
both humoral and cell-mediated immunity.

Host-versus-graft disease refers to:
transplant rejection by the recipient’s immune system.

Which statement applies to contact dermatitis?
A type IV reaction occurs in affected areas

Which of the following complications does NOT occur frequently in AIDS patients?

Early signs of hyperglycemia include polyphagia, which means:

Goiters may be caused by:
either hypothyroid or hyperthyroid conditions

Why does hypocalcemia cause tetany?
Nerves to skeletal muscle are more excitable.

Which of the following does NOT usually develop as a complication of diabetes?

Which of the following conditions may precipitate or exacerbate hyperglycemia?
Cushing’s disease

The anterior pituitary gland secretes all of the following hormones EXCEPT

All these tissues use glucose without the aid of insulin EXCEPT:

Why does polyuria develop with diabetes mellitus?
Osmotic pressure due to glucose

A type of diabetes that may develop during pregnancy and disappear after delivery is called:
gestational diabetes.

Which statement applies to Huntington’s disease?
It presents with choreiform movements in the upper body and decreased ability to concentrate.

What is the usual result of damage to the right occipital lobe?
Loss of left visual field

What is the effect of an enlarging brain abscess on cardiovascular activity?
Systemic vasoconstriction and slower heart rate

Which type of fracture typically occurs at the base of the skull?

Which type of cerebrovascular accident (CVA) has the poorest prognosis?
Hemorrhagic CVA

Which of the following factors predispose(s) an individual to a CVA?
1. Hypertension
2. Smoking cigarettes
3. History of coronary artery disease
4. Diabetes mellitus
1, 2, 3, 4

Which of the following statements is TRUE about malignant brain tumors?
Primary brain tumors rarely metastasize outside the CNS.

Which of the following conditions is marked by focal signs?
Brain abscess

In cases of Guillain-Barré syndrome, what does the pathophysiology include?
Inflammation and demyelination of peripheral nerves, leading to ascending paralysis

Secondary brain tumors usually arise from:
metastasized breast or lung tumors.

Brain injury where the brain is injured when it bounces off of the skull due to sudden acceleration or deceleration is referred to as a/an:
contrecoup injury

The semicircular canals of the inner ear are responsible for:
balance and equilibrium.

An infection that damages the auditory nerve can cause what type of hearing loss?

Which of the following is an example of conduction deafness?
Adhesions reducing the movement of the ossicles

How does otosclerosis cause hearing loss?
Fixation of the stapes to the oval window

Which is the early effect of age-related macular degeneration?
Loss of central visual acuity

What do the extrinsic muscles of the eye control?
Movement of the eyeball

Herpes simplex virus is a common cause of:
corneal ulceration and scarring.

Which of the following is a likely consequence of an untreated detached retina?
Lack of nutrients causing death of retinal cells

Which of the statements apply to infection of the eye by Staphylococcus aureus?
1. It involves the conjunctiva.
2. It is highly contagious.
3. It is commonly known as “pinkeye.”
4. It usually causes keratitis and permanent visual loss.
1, 2, 3

How can pediculosis be diagnosed?
The presence of nits at the base of hair shafts

The cause of contact dermatitis can often be identified by:
noting the location and size of the lesion.

The pathological change associated with scleroderma is:
collagen deposits in the small blood vessels of the skin and sometimes the viscera.

All of the following statements apply to malignant melanoma EXCEPT:
They present as non-pruritic purplish macules.

Which of the following skin lesions are usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus?

What is a raised, thin-walled lesion containing clear fluid called?

What is the common signal that a recurrence of herpes simplex infection is developing?
Mild tingling along the nerve or on the lips

Immovable joints are called:

A dislocation is:
the separation of bones in the joint with a loss of contact.

How are antiviral drugs effective in treating a viral infection?
They limit the acute stage and viral shedding.

What change occurs in the skin with psoriasis?
Increased mitosis and shedding of epithelium

Tinea capitis is an infection involving the:

What limits joint movement in osteoarthritis?
The osteophytes and irregular cartilage surface

Which of the following cells produce new bone?

How is Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy inherited?
X-linked recessive gene

What is the chemical transmitter released at the neuromuscular junction?

What is the typical joint involvement with rheumatoid arthritis?
Bilateral small joints, symmetrical progression to other joints

Which of the following best describes the typical bone pain caused by osteogenic sarcoma?
Steady, severe, and persisting with rest

Where does inflammation usually begin in an individual with ankylosing spondylitis?
Sacroiliac joints with progression up the spine

How does the joint appear during an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis?
Red, warm, swollen, and tender to touch

In an infant, the initial indication of congestive heart failure is often:
feeding problems.

Which of the following drugs improves cardiac efficiency by slowing the heart rate and increasing the force of cardiac contractions?

An incompetent mitral valve would cause:
decreased output from the left ventricle.

Prophylactic antibacterial drugs such as amoxicillin are given to patients with certain congenital heart defects or damaged heart valves immediately before invasive procedures to prevent:
infectious endocarditis.

Pericarditis causes a reduction in cardiac output as a result of which of the following?
Excess fluid in the pericardial cavity, which decreases ventricular filling

Which of the following drugs decrease sodium and fluid retention in the body?
hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)

The cause of essential hypertension is considered to be:

The most common cause of a myocardial infarction is:
atherosclerosis involving an attached thrombus.

What is a sign indicating total obstruction of the airway by aspirated material?
Rapid loss of consciousness

Which of the following activities does NOT require muscle contractions and energy?
Quiet expiration

Lobar pneumonia is usually caused by:
Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Destruction of alveolar walls and septae is a typical change in:

What is the acid-base status of a patient with the following values for arterial blood gases?
serum bicarbonate 36.5 mmol/L (normal range: 22-28)
PCO2 75 mm Hg (normal range: 35-45)
serum pH 7.0
Decompensated respiratory acidosis

Which of the following confirms the presence of active (reinfection) tuberculosis?
Identification of acid-fast bacilli in a sputum sample

Which of the following describes lobar pneumonia?
Sudden onset of fever and chills, with rales and rusty sputum

Cyanosis occurs in children with tetralogy of Fallot because:
a large amount of hemoglobin in the general circulation is unoxygenated.

The normal delay in conduction through the AV node is essential for:
completing ventricular filling.

Which of the following statements regarding aneurysms is true?
Manifestations of aneurysms result from compression of adjacent structures.

Excessive fluid in the pericardial space causes:
reduced venous return.

Which of the following compensations that develop in patients with congestive heart failure eventually increase the workload of the heart?
A, B, and C

Which of the following statement(s) about jaundice is/are true?
1. It is often the first manifestation of hepatitis.
2. Jaundice indicates permanent liver damage.
3. Individuals with hepatitis are always jaundiced.
4. Jaundice usually develops with hepatocellular carcinoma.
4 only

Malnutrition may develop in children with celiac disease because of:
damage to the intestinal villi.

When highly acidic chyme enters the duodenum, which hormone stimulates the release of pancreatic secretions that contains very high bicarbonate ion content?

Why does herpes simplex infection tend to recur?
The virus persists in latent form in sensory nerve ganglia.

Dehydration limits compensation available for an acid-base imbalance resulting from prolonged vomiting and diarrhea because:
hypovolemia limits renal function.

Normally, proteins or amino acids are required to produce all of the following EXCEPT:
cellular energy.

What is the definition of dysphagia?
Difficulty in swallowing

What is a common cause of gastroenteritis due to Salmonella?
Raw or undercooked poultry or eggs

What would be the long-term effects of chronic infection or inflammation of the kidneys?
Gradual necrosis, fibrosis, and development of uremia

Which of the following should be present in the filtrate in the proximal convoluted tubule?
Sodium ions

Which of the following is NOT likely to lead to hydronephrosis?

The reabsorption of water and electrolytes by the kidneys is directly controlled by:
1. atrial natriuretic hormone.
2. antidiuretic hormone.
3. angiotensin.
4. the levels of bicarbonate ion.
1, 2

Urine with a low specific gravity is usually related to:
renal failure due to tubule damage.

What are the significant signs of nephrotic syndrome?
Hyperlipidemia and lipiduria

Which of the following results from obstruction of the left ureter by a renal calculus?
An attack of renal colic

Prolonged or severe stress predisposes to peptic ulcer disease because:
of reduced blood flow to the gastric wall and mucous glands.

How does chemical peritonitis and shock frequently result from acute pancreatitis?
Inflammation and increased vascular permeability of the peritoneum affect fluid balance.

Which factors contribute to ascites in patients with cirrhosis?
Increased aldosterone and deficit of albumin

By what process is water reabsorbed from the filtrate?

Uncontrolled essential hypertension may cause chronic renal failure because of:
damage to afferent arterioles and renal ischemia.

The most common solid tumor found in young men is:
testicular cancer.

Ovarian cancer has a poor prognosis because:
vague signs and hidden location lead to late diagnosis.

Which of the following is the most common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis?
E. coli

Which sexually transmitted infection(s) is/are usually considered asymptomatic in women?
All of the above

Adenocarcinomas make up the most common cancers found in the:

Why does severe pain occur with each menstrual cycle in endometriosis?
Inflammation due to blood irritating the endometrial tissue

Which of the following infections may be transmitted from the mother to the fetus during delivery?
All of the above

Testicular cancer usually spreads first to the:
pelvic lymph nodes.

Which of the following are common early significant signs of acute prostatitis?
Soft, tender, enlarged gland and dysuria

Which of the following is a common complication of leiomyomas?
Abnormal bleeding such as menorrhagia

The term primigravida refers to:
a woman who is pregnant for the first time.

Gestational diabetes in the mother usually results in:
delivery of a high birth-weight infant.

Which of the following indicates development of pregnancy-induced hypertension?
Persistent blood pressure measuring above 140/90

Which of the following is a serious potential complication of abruptio placentae indicated by low serum levels of clotting factors?
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

During which time period do teratogens cause major developmental damage to organs?
First 2 months

Adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation may be used in cases of breast cancer in order to:
destroy any micrometastases.

Which statement about spermatogenesis is TRUE?
It is controlled by follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and testosterone.

Which of the following applies to carcinoma of the breast?
Tumor cells may demonstrate estrogen receptors on the membrane.

What is the usual cause of hemolysis of fetal erythrocytes during pregnancy?
The mother’s blood is Rh negative and the fetus is Rh positive.

Adolescent pregnancy is often considered high risk because of:
All of the above

The process of carcinogenesis usually begins with:
an irreversible change in the cell DNA.

Chemotherapy usually involves a combination of drugs in order to:
1. reduce the adverse effects.
2. guarantee that all cancer cells are destroyed.
3. be effective in more phases of the cell cycle.
4. totally block the mitotic stage.
1, 3

Antiangiogenesis drugs act on a malignant tumor by:
reducing blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells.

Which factor provides the basis for the grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors?
Degree of differentiation of the cells

Identify the common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy:
Bone marrow depression

Malignant brain tumors:
spread to other parts of CNS.

The method that can be used as an alternative to surgical removal of a tumor by using heat generated by a needle inserted into the tumor is referred to as:
radiofrequency ablation.

A classification process that applies to a specific malignant tumor and describes the extent of the disease at a given time is called:

All of the following are correct statements about skin cancers EXCEPT:
They are difficult to diagnose and treat.

One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to:
determine the best treatment and prognosis.

Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy and radiation because:
inflammation around the tumor may be reduced.

Remission for cancer is generally defined as a period in which:
signs and symptoms are absent.

Benign tumors in the brain are often life-threatening because they
create excessive pressure within the skull.

Select the correct pair representing a malignant tumor and its marker
colon cancer: carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

What is a benign neoplasm originating from adipose tissue called?

Why does ovarian cancer have a poor prognosis?
Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors have developed.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a benign tumor?
Cells appear relatively normal.

The common local effects of an expanding tumor mass include:
1. obstruction of a tube or duct.
2. anemia and weight loss.
3. cell necrosis and ulceration.
4. tumor markers in the circulation.
1, 3

Vomiting frequently follows a chemotherapy treatment because:
A and B

Which of the following does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to?
The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells

The laboratory practice of changing DNA sequences in microorganisms is called:
genetic engineering.

In the case of an X-linked recessive disorder, a carrier mother and unaffected father could produce a/an:
normal female.

Exposure to cocaine during pregnancy leads to increased risk of:
A, B, and C

When genetic influences combine with environmental factors to cause an abnormality, the result is called a:
multifactorial disorder.

The purpose of the Human Genome Project was to:
map the nucleotide sequence and identify the genes on each human chromosome.

A mother is a carrier of Duchenne muscular dystrophy; the father is unaffected. They have one son with muscular dystrophy. Another male child is expected. The probability of the second son having muscular dystrophy is:

Developmental disorders can result from all the following EXCEPT:
folic acid

Which term refers to prenatal diagnosis through examination of amniotic fluid?

Three factors common to metabolic syndrome include:
presence of significant abdominal fat mass, changes in glucose metabolism, and changes in lipoprotein metabolism.

Infectious mononucleosis is characterized by all EXCEPT:
increased occurrence in infants and young children.

An autoimmune disease that causes chronic inflammation in the joints of children is:
juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA).

The biological changes associated with adolescence are stimulated primarily by:
the pituitary gland.

Which of the following comprise typical early signs of Still’s disease, a form of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis?
1. Presence of rheumatoid factor in the blood
2. High fever and skin rash
3. Swollen painful knees, wrists, and elbows
4. Deformity of the hands and feet
2, 3

Which of the following would confirm reduced normal linear growth during adolescence?
Abnormally thin epiphyseal plate seen on X-ray

Obesity in adolescents is:
All of the above

Which of the following statements regarding Down syndrome is TRUE?
The typical physical characteristics are present at birth.

A father affected with hemophilia A, whose wife is unaffected, will pass on the defective gene to:
all of his daughters, who will be carriers.

What is characteristic of a congenital disorder?
It is usually manifested in the neonatal period.

Which of the following might fluid and electrolyte deficits cause in a patient with anorexia nervosa?
Cardiac arrhythmias

What is a lateral curvature of the spine called?

Which of the following factors lead to delayed wound healing in the elderly?
1. Reduced rate of mitosis
2. Inadequate circulation
3. High risk of infection
4. More effective immune system
1, 2, 3

Senescence refers to the period of time when:
cell death exceeds cell replacement.

What is a major factor leading to increased occurrence of cancer in the elderly?
Cumulative exposure to carcinogens

Cumulative exposure to carcinogens
Reduced cognitive and social activities

Vision in the elderly may be impaired when the eyeball becomes less elastic, thus preventing accommodation and resulting in:

The term given to the change that occurs in women at around age 50 with the cessation of the menstrual cycle is:

Predisposing factors to osteoporosis in older women include all of the following EXCEPT:
decreased parathyroid hormone.

Theories about the causes of aging include:
All the above

Bladder infections are more likely to develop in immobilized patients because of:
stasis of urine in the urinary system.

Virchow’s triad refers to:
a combination of factors affecting potential thrombus formation.

What is a major factor predisposing to pulmonary infection in immobilized patients?
Stasis of secretions in the lungs

Which of the following is/are common effect(s) of prolonged immobility in children?
All of the above

Which of the following frequently causes decubitus ulcers?
Ischemia at pressure points

Which of the following applies/apply to orthostatic hypotension associated with prolonged immobility?
A and B

Atelectasis may occur with a prolonged period of bed rest because of:
reduced removal of pulmonary secretions.

All of the following changes are associated with aging EXCEPT:
decreased secretion of all hormones.

All are physiological changes that occur with aging EXCEPT:
increased basal metabolic rate (BMR).

Paralysis of the lower part of the body is called:

Prolonged immobility may predispose to ___________ in the kidneys.
urinary stasis, renal calculi, and infection

What do prolonged periods of immobility frequently lead to?
1. Orthostatic hypotension
2. Increased blood pressure and increased heart rate
3. Increased risk of both thrombi and emboli
4. Rapid, deep respirations
1, 3

Possible complications caused by prolonged, severe stress include all of the following EXCEPT:

Severe, prolonged stress may cause acute renal failure or stress ulcers to develop as a result of:
prolonged vasoconstriction and ischemia.

The stress response involves the integrated action of the:
1. hypothalamus.
2. hypophysis.
3. sympathetic nervous system.
4. adrenal glands.
1, 2, 3, 4

Which of the following may alter a person’s perception of a stressor?
A, B, and C

Hans Selye defined his general adaptation syndrome concept, which is also known as:
fight or flight.

Synergism can cause an emergency situation when:
a combination of alcohol and drugs has been taken.

What is/are the typical effect(s) of psychedelic substances?
Altered perception and awareness as well as hallucinations

Chronic alcoholism is likely to cause all of the following EXCEPT:
respiratory failure.

Which of the following drugs causes headache and vomiting when an alcoholic ingests small amounts of alcohol?

Which of the following statements is characteristic of alcohol?
It may cause congenital defects in infants born to alcoholic mothers.

Which of the following types of cells are most likely to be damaged by exposure to radiation?
Epithelial tissue and bone marrow

Which of the following is likely to result from lead poisoning?
Damage to the brain and peripheral nerves

Inhalants can be:
a. a particulate such as asbestos.
b. gaseous, such as sulfur dioxide.
c. a solvent, such as benzene.
A, B, and C

Which of the following is a potential effect of a bite or sting?

A common illness for tourists in developing countries is “traveler’s diarrhea,” often caused by:
E. coli

Which of the following is a synthetic opioid that prevents withdrawal symptoms and improves function?

Withdrawal from any drug is best accomplished:
with medical support.

Which of the following is considered carcinogenic?
Inhaled particulates

During the development of hyperthermia, the state of heat exhaustion is indicated when:
hypovolemia and fainting occur.

Choose the correct effects of exposure of the ears to very cold temperatures:
a. Loss of sensation Incorrectx
b. Lethargy and confusion
c. Vascular occlusions
d. A and C
A and C


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