EMT Chapter 36 (Quiz):

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Minimum staffing in the patient compartment of a basic life support (BLS) ambulance includes:
Choose one answer.
A. at least one EMT.
B. an EMT and an AEMT.
C. an EMT and a paramedic.
D. at least two EMTs.
A

The six-pointed Star of Life® emblem identifies vehicles that:
Choose one answer.
A. are equipped with supplies to manage a mass-casualty situation.
B. are staffed by a minimum of one certified advanced EMT (AEMT).
C. have complied with state regulations for ambulance certification.
D. meet federal specifications as licensed or certified ambulances.
D

Equipment and supplies that are carried on an ambulance should be stored:
Choose one answer.
A. based on recommendations of the health department.
B. in locked or secured cabinets in order to prevent theft.
C. according to the urgency and frequency of their use.
D. as directed by the EMS system’s medical director.
C

Minimum airway and ventilation equipment that should be carried on every ambulance include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. adult and pediatric bag-mask devices.
B. various sizes of oral and nasal airways.
C. mounted and portable suctioning units.
D. Combitubes or laryngeal mask airways.
D

During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is MOST important to:
Choose one answer.
A. reassess unstable patients at least every 15 minutes.
B. converse with the patient and provide reassurance.
C. complete the run form before arrival at the hospital.
D. reassess the patient only if he or she deteriorates.
B

Phases of an ambulance call include all of the following activities, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. emergency care provided at the scene.
B. checking equipment on the ambulance.
C. transferring the patient to the ambulance.
D. transport of the patient to the hospital.
A

While using lights and siren, most state laws permit an ambulance to:
Choose one answer.
A. proceed through red lights without stopping.
B. drive as fast as the department allows.
C. disregard all traffic control signals.
D. carefully exceed the posted speed limit.
D

When being tailgated by another vehicle while responding to an emergency call, you should:
Choose one answer.
A. slam on the brakes to frighten the tailgater.
B. increase your speed to create more distance.
C. stop the ambulance and confront the driver.
D. slow down and allow the driver to pass you.
D

You are en route to an emergency call when you approach a slow-moving vehicle on a two-way road. You can see oncoming traffic in the other lane. The driver has his windows up and does not realize that you are behind him. You should:
Choose one answer.
A. quickly pass the vehicle on the left side.
B. use your public address (PA) system to alert the driver.
C. remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass.
D. pass the driver on the right-hand shoulder.
C

If hydroplaning of the ambulance occurs, the driver should:
Choose one answer.
A. slowly pump the brakes until he or she regains vehicle control.
B. slowly move the steering wheel back and forth.
C. gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes.
D. quickly jerk the steering wheel.
C

The main objective of traffic control at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is to:
Choose one answer.
A. get oncoming traffic past the scene as soon as possible.
B. prevent curious onlookers from observing the scene.
C. warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash.
D. facilitate a route for the media to access the scene.
C

The purpose of a jump kit is to:
Choose one answer.
A. facilitate defibrillation within 5 to 10 minutes after making patient contact.
B. carry advanced life support equipment approved by the EMS medical director.
C. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.
D. manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance.
C

In general, medivac helicopters should be utilized when:
Choose one answer.
A. ground transport would leave your service area without an ambulance for greater than 30 minutes.
B. a patient has been in cardiac arrest for more than 15 minutes and has not responded to CPR and defibrillation.
C. ground transport to the hospital exceeds 30 to 45 minutes, even if the patient’s present condition is stable.
D. a patient has a time-dependent injury or illness and traffic conditions would cause a significant delay in definitive care.
D

Which of the following statements regarding the use of the warning lights and siren on the ambulance is correct?
Choose one answer.
A. If it is necessary to use the siren, you should tell the patient beforehand.
B. Warning lights and siren should be avoided, even if the patient is unstable.
C. If the patient is stable, you may use the warning lights without the siren.
D. It is generally acceptable to increase your speed if lights and siren are in use.
A

Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. completing a detailed written report.
B. informing the dispatcher of your arrival.
C. restocking any disposable items you used.
D. giving a verbal report to the triage clerk.
D

Which of the following is an example of regional equipment or supplies?
Choose one answer.
A. bronchodilator
B. oral glucose
C. snake bite kit
D. vacuum splint
C

Aggressive ambulance driving may have a negative effect on other motorists because:
Choose one answer.
A. they move to the right or drive as close to the curb as possible.
B. they may become enraged and attempt to run you off the road.
C. it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle.
D. they often freeze when they see the lights in the rearview mirror.
C

Other than personal safety equipment, which of the following should be the MOST readily accessible item in the back of an ambulance?
Choose one answer.
A. pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) and traction splint
B. stethoscope and penlight
C. bleeding control supplies
D. emergency childbirth kit
C

When transporting a patient who is secured to a backboard, it is important to:
Choose one answer.
A. place deceleration straps over the patient’s shoulders.
B. use at least eight straps to secure the patient to the board.
C. place a folded towel or blanket under his or her head.
D. routinely elevate the head of the backboard 12″.
A

You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital, dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is contaminated with bloody dressings and is in disarray, and you are in need of airway equipment and numerous other supplies. You should:
Choose one answer.
A. quickly proceed to the call and clean and restock the ambulance afterwards.
B. have your partner quickly clean the ambulance as you proceed to the call.
C. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit.
D. proceed to the call, functioning only as an emergency medical responder.
c

When transporting a patient to the hospital, you should:
Choose one answer.
A. secure the patient to the ambulance stretcher with at least two straps.
B. be safe and get the patient to the hospital in the shortest practical time.
C. generally exceed the posted speed limit by 10 to 20 mph.
D. place the patient on a long backboard, even if no trauma is involved.
B

When approaching a helicopter, whether the rotor blades are moving or not, you should:
Choose one answer.
A. approach the aircraft from the side because this will make it easier for you to access the aircraft doors.
B. remember that the main rotor blade is flexible and can dip as low as 5′ to 6′ from the ground.
C. carefully approach the aircraft from the rear unless a crew member instructs you to do otherwise.
D. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas.
D

It is 10:30 PM and you have requested air medical transport for a critically injured patient. When you arrive at the designated landing zone, you should:
Choose one answer.
A. provide the flight crew with a patient status update.
B. mark the proposed landing area with road flares.
C. mark the landing site using personnel with flashlights.
D. survey the area for power lines or other hazards.
D

When a helicopter must land on a grade (uneven ground), you should:
Choose one answer.
A. approach the aircraft from the downhill side.
B. approach the aircraft from the uphill side.
C. attempt to approach the aircraft from behind.
D. move the patient to the aircraft as soon as it lands.
A

Your unit and a fire department vehicle are responding to the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest. As you approach an intersection that is highly congested, you should:
Choose one answer.
A. turn off your lights and siren and proceed with safety.
B. advise the fire department vehicle to follow you closely.
C. ask the fire department vehicle to remain 1,000′ behind you.
D. use a different siren tone than the fire department vehicle.
D

A portable oxygen cylinder should have a capacity of a minimum of ____ of oxygen.
Choose one answer.
A. 1,000 L
B. 500 L
C. 250 L
D. 750 L
B

You are dispatched to a residence for a patient with chest pain; however, you are unfamiliar with the address and cannot find the location in your map book. A nearby police officer radios you and tells you that he knows how to get to the scene. You should:
Choose one answer.
A. follow the police officer in emergency mode until you get near the scene.
B. turn off your lights and carefully follow the police officer to the scene.
C. keep your lights on and ask the police officer to guide you to the scene.
D. ask the dispatcher to call the residence and obtain driving directions.
B

The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called:
Choose one answer.
A. disinfection.
B. cleaning.
C. high-level disinfection.
D. sterilization.
A

A disposable oxygen humidifier should be considered for ambulance services that often transport patients on runs longer than:
Choose one answer.
A. 3 hours.
B. 1 hour.
C. 2 hours.
D. 4 hours.
B

Upon arriving at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash at night, you find that the safest place to park your ambulance is in a direction that is facing oncoming traffic. You should:
Choose one answer.
A. quickly access the patient.
B. place a flare near the crash.
C. turn your headlights off.
D. turn all warning lights off.
C

After assessing your patient, you determine that his condition is stable. You provide the appropriate treatment and then load him into the ambulance. While en route to the hospital, you should:
Choose one answer.
A. drive slowly and remain in the far left-hand lane, if possible.
B. keep your emergency lights on but avoid using the siren.
C. turn your emergency lights off and obey all traffic laws.
D. use your lights and siren but drive slowly and defensively.
C

Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. hazardous materials gear.
B. turnout gear.
C. safety goggles.
D. face shields.
A

The MOST common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at:
Choose one answer.
A. railroad crossings.
B. stop signs.
C. stop lights.
D. intersections.
D

The use of lights and siren on an ambulance:
Choose one answer.
A. allows other drivers to hear and see you from a great distance.
B. signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way.
C. is required any time a patient is being transported to the hospital.
D. legally gives the emergency vehicle operator the right of way.
B

Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then:
Choose one answer.
A. observe the scene for safety hazards.
B. determine if additional units are needed.
C. carefully assess the mechanism of injury.
D. quickly gain access to the patient.
A

Aggressive ambulance driving may have a negative effect on other motorists because:
Choose one answer.
A. they move to the right or drive as close to the curb as possible.
B. it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle.
C. they often freeze when they see the lights in the rearview mirror.
D. they may become enraged and attempt to run you off the road.
B

Upon returning to your station following a run, you should disinfect the ambulance as needed. Disinfection is MOST accurately defined as:
Choose one answer.
A. removing dirt, dust, blood, or other grossly visible contaminants.
B. using heat as a means of removing all microbial contaminants.
C. killing pathogenic agents with a chemical made for that purpose.
D. destroying pathogenic agents by using potent disinfection means.
C

The LEAST practical place to store a portable oxygen cylinder is:
Choose one answer.
A. near the side or rear door.
B. in the driver’s compartment.
C. inside the jump kit.
D. on the ambulance stretcher.
B

Common activities that occur while you and your partner are en route to the scene of an emergency call include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. apprising the medical director of the nature of the call.
B. assigning tasks to each member of the response team.
C. fastening your seatbelts before the ambulance departs.
D. obtaining additional information from the dispatcher.
A

When parking your ambulance at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you should position the ambulance:
Choose one answer.
A. alongside the scene to rapidly access the patient(s).
B. 50′ before the scene on the same side of the road.
C. 100′ past the scene on the same side of the road.
D. 50′ past the scene on the opposite side of the road.
C

When driving an ambulance on a multilane highway in emergency mode, you should:
Choose one answer.
A. pass other drivers on the right side.
B. drive in the center lane of the highway.
C. remain in the extreme right-hand lane.
D. remain in the extreme left-hand lane.
D

A type _____ ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed.
Choose one answer.
A. III
B. I
C. II
D. IV
B

Which of the following items would MOST likely require special protocols in order to be carried on the ambulance?
Choose one answer.
A. pediatric nonrebreathing masks
B. PASG
C. devices for restraining a patient
D. automated external defibrillator (AED)
B

While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should:
Choose one answer.
A. slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side.
B. back up and take an alternate route to the scene.
C. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.
D. pass the bus only after all the children have exited.
C

As soon as you leave the hospital and are en route back to your station, you should inform the dispatcher:
Choose one answer.
A. that you are prepared for another call.
B. about the patient’s clinical condition.
C. of the name of the accepting physician.
D. whether you are back in service.
D

Characteristics of a safe ambulance operator include:
Choose one answer.
A. a positive attitude about the ability to tolerate other drivers.
B. the ability to operate an ambulance at a high rate of speed.
C. realizing that lights and siren will be effective traffic tools.
D. an offensive attitude about driving during an emergency call.
A

When working at the scene of a motor vehicle crash at night, you should NOT use:
Choose one answer.
A. reflective vests.
B. intermittent flashing devices.
C. road flares.
D. portable floodlights.
C

Maintaining a cushion of safety when operating an ambulance means:
Choose one answer.
A. remaining in the far right-hand lane when transporting a critical patient and refraining from passing other motorists on the left side.
B. driving at the posted speed limit, regardless of the patient’s condition, and routinely using your lights and siren when driving on a freeway.
C. driving about 2 to 3 seconds behind any vehicles in front of you and exceeding the posted speed limit by no more than 20 to 25 mph.
D. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirror’s blind spots.
D

Typically medivac helicopters fly between:
Choose one answer.
A. 150 and 200 mph.
B. 120 and 140 mph.
C. 130 and 150 mph.
D. 100 and 120 mph.
C

Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would MOST likely occur at speeds of greater than _____ mph.
Choose one answer.
A. 15
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
D

Portable and mounted suction units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of at least ____ mm Hg when the tubing is clamped.
Choose one answer.
A. 400
B. 200
C. 300
D. 100
C

General guidelines for safe ambulance driving include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. avoiding one-way streets whenever possible.
B. regularly using the siren as much as possible.
C. avoiding routes with heavy traffic congestion.
D. assuming that other drivers will not see you.
B

Regardless of where portable and mounted oxygen cylinders are stored in the ambulance, they must:
Choose one answer.
A. hold a minimum capacity of 1,500 L of oxygen.
B. undergo hydrostatic testing on a weekly basis.
C. be easily identifiable by their bright green color.
D. be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min.
D

When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should:
Choose one answer.
A. park downhill from the scene.
B. ask the driver to exit the vehicle.
C. position the ambulance upwind.
D. quickly gain access to the patient.
C

For every emergency request, the dispatcher should routinely gather and record all of the following information, EXCEPT the:
Choose one answer.
A. nature of the call.
B. patient’s medical history.
C. location of the patient(s).
D. caller’s phone number.
B

We use cookies to give you the best experience possible. By continuing we’ll assume you’re on board with our cookie policy delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, EXCEPT: giving a verbal report to the …

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